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Author Topic: Trigger for one == Trigger for all ?  (Read 1106 times)

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Offline Mr.Peanut

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Trigger for one == Trigger for all ?
« on: 09 Jun 2005, 17:17:56 »
If a trigger is activated on one client, or just the dedicated server, it is automatically activated on all machines? I think the answer is yes but I'm not 100%.

I've used a boolean variable to activate a trigger from an  eventhandler, so that the event is detected on all machines.  Do I need to publicVariable the boolean variable, or will it not matter because a trigger activated on one machine, be it client or server, will be automatically activated on all machines, be they clients or server?
« Last Edit: 09 Jun 2005, 17:20:20 by Mr.Peanut »
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Offline Terox

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Re:Trigger for one == Trigger for all ?
« Reply #1 on: 10 Jun 2005, 14:02:50 »
the trigger is local everywhere, so you dont need to pv a boolean to initiate the trigger on every machine

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